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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 21.06.2025 17:06

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

You'll usually find your answer there.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

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Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Are today’s baseball pitchers faster than a few years ago, or is it that radar guns have improved and get the pitch speed as it is released rather than as it reaches the plate?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Are there any political parties or groups that have a mix of conservative and liberal beliefs? Why are they not as prominent in the media?

There's no rule.